Free CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) Exam Questions and Answers
Replaces CS0-002: CompTIA CySA Certification Exam (CS0-002). Questions from the earlier version are also in this bank.
CompTIA CySA+ (CS0-003) certifies the analyst work that sits between Security+ and the advanced credentials — detection, triage and response rather than configuration. It allows 165 minutes for a maximum of 85 questions, mixing multiple choice with performance-based items, at 750 on a 100–900 scale. Security operations is the largest domain at 33%, then vulnerability management 30%, incident response 20% and reporting and communication 17%. Two dates matter: CS0-004 has been available since 23 June 2026, and the English CS0-003 exam retires on 22 December 2026 — so this version is still sittable, but check which code your voucher covers.
Looking for CS0-003 exam dumps or ExamTopics CS0-003 questions? These CS0-003 practice questions cover the same ground with verified answers and explanations, a downloadable CS0-003 PDF and a full CS0-003 practice test, kept current as CompTIA updates the exam.
Last updated: October 2, 2026
- Exam code
- CS0-003
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- CompTIA
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- First 10, with answers
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- 130 mins · 70%
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Question #1
A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program. no-lich of the following scanning methods should be implemented to minimize the risk of OT/ICS devices malfunctioning due to the vulnerability identification process?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
Passive scanning is a method of vulnerability identification that does not send any packets or probes to the target devices, but rather observes and analyzes the network traffic passively. Passive scanning can minimize the risk of OT/ICS devices malfunctioning due to the vulnerability identification process, as it does not interfere with the normal operation of the devices or cause any network disruption. Passive scanning can also detect vulnerabilities that active scanning may miss, such as misconfigured devices, rogue devices or unauthorized traffic. Official References: • https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives • https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered • https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
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Question #2
A company has the following security requirements: . No public IPs · All data secured at rest . No insecure ports/protocols After a cloud scan is completed, a security analyst receives reports that several misconfigurations are putting the company at risk. Given the following cloud scanner output: Which of the following should the analyst recommend be updated first to meet the security requirements and reduce risks?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
This VM has a public IP and an open port 80, which violates the company’s security requirements of no public IPs and no insecure ports/protocols. It also exposes the VM to potential attacks from the internet. This VM should be updated first to use a private IP and close the port 80, or use a secure protocol such as HTTPS. References[CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition], Chapter 2: Cloud and Hybrid Environments, page 67.[What is a Public IP Address?][What is Port 80?]
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Question #3
An analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident. The analyst has isolated the vulnerability and is actively removing it from the system. Which of the following steps of the process does this describe?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files. Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is completely eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.
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Question #4
A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan. Based on the metrics from the scan results, the analyst must prioritize which hosts to patch. The analyst runs the tool and receives the following output: Which of the following hosts should be patched first, based on the metrics?
Correct answer: C
Explanation
Host03 should be patched first, based on the metrics, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of critical vulnerabilities. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Host03 has a risk score of 10 x 0.9 = 9, which is higher than any other host. Host03 also has 5 critical vulnerabilities, which are the most severe and urgent to fix, as they can allow remote code execution, privilege escalation, or data loss. The other hosts have lower risk scores and lower numbers of critical vulnerabilities, so they can be patched later.
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Question #5
A security analyst is responding to an indent that involves a malicious attack on a network. Data closet. Which of the following best explains how are analyst should properly document the incident?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
When documenting a physical incident in a network data closet, taking photos provides a clear and immediate record of the situation, which is essential for thorough incident documentation and subsequent investigation. Proper documentation of an incident in a data closet should include taking photos of the impacted items. This provides visual evidence and helps in understanding the physical context of the incident, which is crucial for a thorough investigation. Backing up configuration files, recording connections, and creating network diagrams, while important, are not the primary means of documenting the physical aspects of an incident.
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Question #6
A security analyst needs to ensure that systems across the organization are protected based on the sensitivity of the content each system hosts. The analyst is working with the respective system owners to help determine the best methodology that seeks to promote confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data being hosted. Which of the following should the security analyst perform first to categorize and prioritize the respective systems?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
Determining the asset value of each system is the best action to perform first, as it helps to categorize and prioritize the systems based on the sensitivity of the data they host. The asset value is a measure of how important a system is to the organization, in terms of its financial, operational, or reputational impact. The asset value can help the security analyst to assign a risk level and a protection level to each system, and to allocate resources accordingly. The other actions are not as effective as determining the asset value, as they do not directly address the goal of promoting confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data. Interviewing the users who access these systems may provide some insight into how the systems are used and what data they contain, but it may not reflect the actual value or sensitivity of the data from an organizational perspective. Scanning the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist may help to identify and remediate some security issues, but it does not help to categorize or prioritize the systems based on their data sensitivity. Configuring alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits may help to detect and respond to some emerging threats, but it does not help to protect the systems based on their data sensitivity.
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Question #7
A security analyst has found a moderate-risk item in an organization's point-of-sale application. The organization is currently in a change freeze window and has decided that the risk is not high enough to correct at this time. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation does this scenario illustrate?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
Business process interruption is the inhibitor to remediation that this scenario illustrates. Business process interruption is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident requires the disruption or suspension of a critical or essential business process, such as the point-of-sale application. This can cause operational, financial, or reputational losses for the organization, and may outweigh the benefits of the remediation. Therefore, the organization may decide to postpone or avoid the remediation until a more convenient time, such as a change freeze window, which is a period of time when no changes are allowed to the IT environment12. Service-level agreement, degrading functionality, and proprietary system are other possible inhibitors to remediation, but they are not relevant to this scenario. Service-level agreement is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident violates or affects the contractual obligations or expectations of the service provider or the customer. Degrading functionality is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident reduces or impairs the performance or usability of a system or an application. Proprietary system is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident involves a system or an application that is owned or controlled by a third party, and the organization has limited or no access or authority to modify it3. References: Inhibitors to Remediation — SOC Ops Simplified, Remediation Inhibitors - CompTIA CySA+, Information security Vulnerability Management Report (Remediation…
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Question #8
A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment Which of the following must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations?
Correct answer: C
Explanation
In environments with fragile and legacy equipment, passive scanning is preferred to prevent any potential disruptions that active scanning might cause. When assessing the security of an Operational Technology (OT) network, especially one with fragile and legacy equipment, it's crucial to use passive instead of active vulnerability scans. Active scanning can sometimes disrupt the operation of sensitive or older equipment. Passive scanning listens to network traffic without sending probing requests, thus minimizing the risk of disruption.
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Question #9
During an incident involving phishing, a security analyst needs to find the source of the malicious email. Which of the following techniques would provide the analyst with this information?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
Header analysis is the technique of examining the metadata of an email, such as the sender, recipient, date, subject, and routing information. It can help to identify the source of a malicious email by revealing the IP address and domain name of the originator, as well as any spoofing or redirection attempts. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 240; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 249.
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Question #10
An analyst recommends that an EDR agent collect the source IP address, make a connection to the firewall, and create a policy to block the malicious source IP address across the entire network automatically. Which of the following is the best option to help the analyst implement this recommendation?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering. SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.
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Discussion
Explain your reasoning, not just the letterOther CompTIA certifications
- SK0-004: CompTIA Server (opens in a new tab)
- SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 (opens in a new tab)
- N10-008: CompTIA Network (opens in a new tab)
- CS0-002: CompTIA CySA Certification Exam (CS0-002) (opens in a new tab)
- SY0-601: CompTIA Security 2021 (opens in a new tab)
- N10-009: CompTIA Network+ Exam (opens in a new tab)
- N10-007: CompTIA Network 2018 (opens in a new tab)
- 220-1102: CompTIA A Certification Exam: Core 2 (opens in a new tab)
- SK0-005: CompTIA Server Certification Exam (opens in a new tab)
- 220-1101: CompTIA A Certification Exam: Core 1 (opens in a new tab)
- XK0-005: CompTIA Linux (opens in a new tab)
- CS0-001: CompTIA CySA Certification Exam (opens in a new tab)
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FAQ
Learn More: https://www.comptia.org/certifications
- Q1: How many questions are on the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 exam and how long is it?
- A: The real exam has a maximum of 85 questions and a time limit of 165 minutes.
- Q2: What question types does the CS0-003 exam use?
- A: The exam is a mix of multiple-choice questions and performance-based questions.
- Q3: What is the passing score for CS0-003?
- A: The passing score is 750 on a scale of 100 to 900.
- Q4: What experience does CompTIA recommend before taking CS0-003?
- A: CompTIA recommends Network+, Security+ or equivalent knowledge, with a minimum of four years of hands-on experience as an incident response analyst, security operations center analyst, or equivalent.
- Q5: What languages is the CS0-003 exam available in?
- A: The exam is offered in English, Japanese, Portuguese and Spanish.
- Q6: What domains does the CS0-003 exam cover and how are they weighted?
- A: Security Operations is 33 percent, Vulnerability Management is 30 percent, Incident Response and Management is 20 percent, and Reporting and Communication is 17 percent.
- Q7: When does the CS0-003 exam retire and what replaces it?
- A: CS0-003 launched on June 6, 2023 and, as of October 2026, is the retiring version. CompTIA launched CySA+ V4 (CS0-004) on June 23, 2026; the English CS0-003 exam retires on December 22, 2026 and the Japanese, Portuguese and Spanish versions retire on March 23, 2027.
- Q8: How long is the CySA+ certification valid and how do I renew it?
- A: CySA+ is valid for three years from the date it is earned. You can renew by earning 60 CEUs during the three-year cycle, with a CE fee of USD 150 for the cycle as of October 2026, or by passing a qualifying higher-level or newer exam.
- Q9: What is the CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) exam?
- A: CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) is a CompTIA certification exam. Judging by the questions in our bank, it concentrates on analyst, vulnerability, actor, scan and malicious.
- Q10: What topics does the CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) exam cover?
- A: Questions in our CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) bank cluster around analyst, vulnerability, actor, scan, malicious, workstations, ciso and vulnerabilities. Working through the full set is the quickest way to find which of these you are weakest on.
- Q11: How should I prepare for CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003)?
- A: Work through the CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) practice questions here, checking your answer on each one, then sit the practice test to rehearse the exam under timed conditions before the real thing.
- Q12: Are these real CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) exam questions?
- A: They are drawn from officially released past questions and from community members who have sat CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003). Answers are verified and updated weekly.
- Q13: Where do I register for the CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) exam?
- A: Register through CompTIA directly at https://www.comptia.org/certifications. Exampractice is not affiliated with CompTIA and does not administer the exam.
- Q14: Is there a free CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) sample?
- A: Yes. Every CS0-003: CompTIA CySA (CS0-003) page shows a free sample of real questions. Upgrading opens the full bank and the practice test.
- Q15: What are CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: CompTIA Certification Exams validate your expertise in various IT disciplines, including networking, security, cloud computing, and IT support. These certifications demonstrate your proficiency in applying best practices and industry standards to manage and troubleshoot IT environments.
- Q16: Why should I pursue CompTIA Certification?
- A: CompTIA Certification enhances your professional credibility, showcasing your skills and knowledge in essential IT areas. This can lead to better job opportunities, higher salaries, and career advancement in IT support, networking, cybersecurity, and cloud computing fields.
- Q17: What are the benefits of CompTIA Certification?
- A: Benefits include recognition as a certified IT professional, improved job performance, access to exclusive resources, continuing education opportunities, and staying current with the latest IT industry trends and best practices.
- Q18: Who should take CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: IT professionals, network administrators, cybersecurity experts, cloud engineers, and anyone involved in managing and supporting IT infrastructure should consider these certifications to validate their expertise and advance their careers.
- Q19: What types of CompTIA Certification Exams are available?
- A: CompTIA offers various certification paths, including:
- Q20: How do I prepare for CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: Preparation can include official CompTIA training courses, study guides, practice exams, online tutorials, and hands-on experience in relevant IT disciplines.
- Q21: Where can I take CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: CompTIA Certification Exams can be taken at authorized Pearson VUE testing centers worldwide or online, providing flexibility to fit your schedule and location.
- Q22: How do CompTIA Certifications impact my career?
- A: CompTIA Certifications significantly boost your career by demonstrating your expertise to employers, making you a more competitive candidate for advanced roles and promotions in IT support, networking, cybersecurity, and cloud computing.
- Q23: Are there any prerequisites for CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: Some exams may have prerequisites, such as foundational knowledge or prior certifications. Check the specific requirements for each certification path on the CompTIA website.
- Q24: How often do I need to recertify for CompTIA Certifications?
- A: CompTIA Certifications typically require recertification every three years to ensure that certified professionals stay updated with the latest IT technologies and industry practices.