Free SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 Exam Questions and Answers
Replaces SY0-601: CompTIA Security 2021. Questions from the earlier version are also in this bank.
CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) is the certification most often named in entry-level security job adverts, and the one many employers treat as the floor for a security administrator or analyst role. It allows up to 90 minutes for a maximum of 90 questions, mixing multiple choice with performance-based questions that put you in a simulated console rather than asking you to recall a definition. The pass mark is 750 on a 100–900 scale. Security operations is the largest domain at 28%, followed by threats and vulnerabilities 22%, programme management 20%, architecture 18% and general concepts 12%. No prerequisite, though CompTIA suggests Network+ and two years of hands-on work first.
If you searched for SY0-701 dumps, an SY0-701 ExamTopics discussion or a free SY0-701 PDF, this is the CompTIA Security 2023 question bank: practice questions with verified answers and explanations, a timed SY0-701 practice test and updates whenever CompTIA changes the exam.
Last updated: October 5, 2026
- Exam code
- SY0-701
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- 1000+
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- First 10, with answers
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- 130 mins · 70%
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Question #1
Employees in the research and development business unit receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect company data. Which of the following is the type of data these employees are most likely to use in day-to-day work activities?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
Intellectual property is a type of data that consists of ideas, inventions, designs, or other creative works that have commercial value and are protected by law. Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property data in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in creating new products or services for the company. Intellectual property data needs to be protected from unauthorized use, disclosure, or theft, as it can give the company a competitive advantage in the market. Therefore, these employees receive extensive training to ensure they understand how to best protect this type of data. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 1.2 - Security Concepts, 7:57 - 9:03.
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Question #2
Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards. References: • Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.” • CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider.”
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Question #3
Which of the following can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are authorized to run on a system and blocks all other applications. An application allow list can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system because it prevents the execution of any unauthorized or malicious software, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, or spyware. An application allow list can also reduce the attack surface and improve the performance of the system. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 551 1
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Question #4
An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period. Which of the following data policies is the administrator carrying out?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
A data retention policy is a set of rules that defines how long data should be stored and when it should be deleted or archived. An administrator assists the legal and compliance team with ensuring information about customer transactions is archived for the proper time period by following the data retention policy of the organization. This policy helps the organization to comply with legal and regulatory requirements, optimize storage space, and protect data privacy and security. References • CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.4, page 1211 • CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3, Question 15, page 832
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Question #5
Which of the following describes the process of concealing code or text inside a graphical image?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
Steganography is the process of hiding information within another medium, such as an image, audio, video, or text file. The hidden information is not visible or noticeable to the casual observer, and can only be extracted by using a specific technique or key. Steganography can be used for various purposes, such as concealing secret messages, watermarking, or evading detection by antivirus software12 References: 1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5: Cryptography and PKI, page 233 2: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 5: Cryptography and PKI, page 235
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Question #6
Which of the following should a security administrator adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
A change management procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that a security administrator should adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules. A firewall is a device or software that can filter, block, or allow network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall rule is a statement that defines the criteria and action for a firewall to apply to a packet or a connection. For example, a firewall rule can allow or deny traffic based on the source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, or applications. Setting up a new set of firewall rules is a type of change that can affect the security, performance, and functionality of the network. Therefore, a change management procedure is necessary to ensure that the change is planned, tested, approved, implemented, documented, and reviewed in a controlled and consistent manner. A change management procedure typically includes the following elements: • A change request that describes the purpose, scope, impact, and benefits of the change, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the change owner, implementer, and approver. • A change assessment that evaluates the feasibility, risks, costs, and dependencies of the change, as well as the alternatives and contingency plans. • A change approval that authorizes the change to proceed to the implementation stage, based on the criteria and thresholds defined by the change policy. • A change implementation that executes the change according to the plan and schedule, and verifies the results and outcomes of the change. • A change documentation that records the details and status of the change, as well as the lessons learned and best practices. • A change review that monitors and measures the performance and effectiveness of the change, and identifies any issues or gaps that need to be addressed or improved. A change management procedure is important for a security administrator to adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules, as it can help to achieve the following objectives: • Enhance the security posture and compliance of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are aligned with the security policies and standards, and that they do not introduce any vulnerabilities or conflicts. • Minimize the disruption and downtime of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are tested and validated before deployment, and that they do not affect the availability or functionality of the network services or applications. • Improve the efficiency and quality of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are optimized and updated according to the changing needs and demands of the network users and stakeholders, and that they do not cause any performance or compatibility issues. • Increase the accountability and transparency of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are documented and reviewed regularly, and that they are traceable and auditable by the relevant authorities and parties. The other options are not correct because they are not related to the process of setting up a new set of firewall rules. A disaster recovery plan is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. An incident response procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that aim to contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from a security incident, such as a cyberattack, data breach, or malware infection. A business continuity plan is a set of strategies and actions that aim to maintain the essential functions and operations of an organization during and after a disruptive event, such as a pandemic, power outage, or civil unrest. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.3: Security Operations, video: Change Management (5:45).
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Question #7
Which of the following practices would be best to prevent an insider from introducing malicious code into a company's development process?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
Peer review and approval is a practice that involves having other developers or experts review the code before it is deployed or released. Peer review and approval can help detect and prevent malicious code, errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, and poor quality in the development process. Peer review and approval can also enforce coding standards, best practices, and compliance requirements. Peer review and approval can be done manually or with the help of tools, such as code analysis, code review, and code signing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 543 2
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Question #8
An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users’ passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user’s password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication. Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user’s role or identity. Access management © is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password. References = You can learn more about multifactor authentication and other security concepts in the following resources: • CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts1 • Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.2: Security Concepts2 • Multi-factor Authentication – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.43 • TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 3: Identity and Access Management, Lecture 15: Multifactor Authentication4 • CompTIA Security+ Certification SY0-601: The Total Course [Video], Chapter 3: Identity and Account Management, Section 2: Enabling Multifactor Authentication5
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Question #9
A security administrator needs a method to secure data in an environment that includes some form of checks so that the administrator can track any changes. Which of the following should the administrator set up to achieve this goal?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, which is a method to secure data by detecting any changes or modifications to files, directories, or registry keys. FIM can help a security administrator track any unauthorized or malicious changes to the data, as well as verify the integrity and compliance of the data. FIM can also alert the administrator of any potential breaches or incidents involving the data. Some of the benefits of FIM are: • It can prevent data tampering and corruption by verifying the checksums or hashes of the files. • It can identify the source and time of the changes by logging the user and system actions. • It can enforce security policies and standards by comparing the current state of the data with the baseline or expected state. • It can support forensic analysis and incident response by providing evidence and audit trails of the changes. References: • CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Technologies and Tools, Section 5.3: Security Tools, p. 209-210 • CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Technologies and Tools, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, analyze and interpret output from security technologies, Sub-objective: File integrity monitor, p. 12
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Question #10
A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?
Correct answer: C
Explanation
IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client’s network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0- 701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385 1
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Discussion
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FAQ
Learn More: https://www.comptia.org/certifications
- Q1: How many questions are on the Security+ exam and how long is it?
- A: The real exam has a maximum of 90 questions and you get 90 minutes. The questions are a mix of multiple choice and performance-based items that ask you to solve a problem in a simulated environment.
- Q2: What is the passing score for Security+ SY0-701?
- A: You need 750 on a scale of 100 to 900. CompTIA reports a single scaled score for the whole exam rather than a percentage.
- Q3: What are the SY0-701 exam domains and their weightings?
- A: General Security Concepts (12%), Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%), Security Architecture (18%), Security Operations (28%) and Security Program Management and Oversight (20%).
- Q4: Is Security+ hard, and what experience do I need first?
- A: There is no mandatory prerequisite. CompTIA recommends holding Network+ and having two years of experience in a security or systems administrator role, which is a useful guide to the level the exam is pitched at.
- Q5: When does SY0-701 retire and when is the next version coming?
- A: CompTIA has said Security+ V8 is expected to launch on or around 17 November 2026. The English SY0-701 exam retires on 11 June 2027, and the Japanese, Portuguese, Spanish and Thai versions retire on 13 August 2027, so SY0-701 remains available for several months after V8 arrives.
- Q6: Where can I take the Security+ exam and in what languages?
- A: You can test in person at a Pearson VUE test centre or online from home through Pearson VUE's OnVUE remote proctoring. SY0-701 is offered in English, Japanese, Portuguese, Spanish and Thai.
- Q7: How long is Security+ valid and how do I renew it?
- A: The certification is valid for three years from the date you pass. You renew by earning 50 continuing education units in that period and paying the CE fees, by completing CompTIA's CertMaster CE course, by earning a higher-level CompTIA certification, or by passing the latest Security+ exam.
- Q8: What happens if I fail Security+? Can I retake it straight away?
- A: There is no waiting period between your first and second attempts, but before a third or any later attempt you must wait at least 14 calendar days. Each attempt requires a new exam voucher.
- Q9: What is the SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 exam?
- A: SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 is a CompTIA certification exam. Judging by the questions in our bank, it concentrates on analyst, saas, vulnerability, patch and engineer.
- Q10: What topics does the SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 exam cover?
- A: Questions in our SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 bank cluster around analyst, saas, vulnerability, patch, engineer, attack, technician and legacy. Working through the full set is the quickest way to find which of these you are weakest on.
- Q11: How should I prepare for SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023?
- A: Work through the SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 practice questions here, checking your answer on each one, then sit the practice test to rehearse the exam under timed conditions before the real thing.
- Q12: Are these real SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 exam questions?
- A: They are drawn from officially released past questions and from community members who have sat SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023. Answers are verified and updated weekly.
- Q13: Where do I register for the SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 exam?
- A: Register through CompTIA directly at https://www.comptia.org/certifications. Exampractice is not affiliated with CompTIA and does not administer the exam.
- Q14: Is there a free SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 sample?
- A: Yes. Every SY0-701: CompTIA Security 2023 page shows a free sample of real questions. Upgrading opens the full bank and the practice test.
- Q15: What are CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: CompTIA Certification Exams validate your expertise in various IT disciplines, including networking, security, cloud computing, and IT support. These certifications demonstrate your proficiency in applying best practices and industry standards to manage and troubleshoot IT environments.
- Q16: Why should I pursue CompTIA Certification?
- A: CompTIA Certification enhances your professional credibility, showcasing your skills and knowledge in essential IT areas. This can lead to better job opportunities, higher salaries, and career advancement in IT support, networking, cybersecurity, and cloud computing fields.
- Q17: What are the benefits of CompTIA Certification?
- A: Benefits include recognition as a certified IT professional, improved job performance, access to exclusive resources, continuing education opportunities, and staying current with the latest IT industry trends and best practices.
- Q18: Who should take CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: IT professionals, network administrators, cybersecurity experts, cloud engineers, and anyone involved in managing and supporting IT infrastructure should consider these certifications to validate their expertise and advance their careers.
- Q19: What types of CompTIA Certification Exams are available?
- A: CompTIA offers various certification paths, including:
- Q20: How do I prepare for CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: Preparation can include official CompTIA training courses, study guides, practice exams, online tutorials, and hands-on experience in relevant IT disciplines.
- Q21: Where can I take CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: CompTIA Certification Exams can be taken at authorized Pearson VUE testing centers worldwide or online, providing flexibility to fit your schedule and location.
- Q22: How do CompTIA Certifications impact my career?
- A: CompTIA Certifications significantly boost your career by demonstrating your expertise to employers, making you a more competitive candidate for advanced roles and promotions in IT support, networking, cybersecurity, and cloud computing.
- Q23: Are there any prerequisites for CompTIA Certification Exams?
- A: Some exams may have prerequisites, such as foundational knowledge or prior certifications. Check the specific requirements for each certification path on the CompTIA website.
- Q24: How often do I need to recertify for CompTIA Certifications?
- A: CompTIA Certifications typically require recertification every three years to ensure that certified professionals stay updated with the latest IT technologies and industry practices.