Free USMLE Step 1 Exam Questions and Answers
The first of the three United States Medical Licensing Examination steps, assessing the basic sciences that underpin medical practice. Pass/fail since 2022.
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Last updated: October 18, 2026
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Question #1
A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increased thirst and urination for 3 weeks. She has bipolar disorder, and her mood has been stable since lithium therapy was started 2 years ago. She drinks about 5 L of water daily. Her temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 76/min, and blood pressure is 118/74 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show: Serum Na+ 146 mEq/L Glucose 92 mg/dL Lithium 0.8 mEq/L (therapeutic range, 0.6-1.2) Urine osmolality 142 mOsm/kg H2O Urine osmolality does not change after administration of desmopressin. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this patient's polyuria?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
Lithium accumulates in collecting duct principal cells and interferes with the ADH-mediated cAMP pathway, so aquaporin-2 channels are not inserted and the kidney cannot concentrate urine (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). Failure to respond to desmopressin separates this from central diabetes insipidus. Psychogenic polydipsia is the tempting alternative, but it causes low-normal serum sodium and urine that concentrates after water restriction.
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Question #2
A 29-year-old woman comes to the physician because of blurred vision and pain with movement of her left eye for 4 days. Eight months ago she had a transient episode of numbness and tingling in her right leg that resolved without treatment. Examination shows decreased visual acuity and a relative afferent pupillary defect in the left eye. Sensation to light touch is decreased over the right lower extremity. MRI of the brain shows multiple periventricular white matter lesions oriented perpendicular to the ventricles. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows oligoclonal IgG bands. Immune-mediated destruction of which of the following cell types is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?
Correct answer: E
Explanation
Relapsing neurologic deficits separated in time and space, periventricular plaques, optic neuritis, and CSF oligoclonal bands indicate multiple sclerosis, in which autoreactive T cells and antibodies destroy oligodendrocytes and their central myelin. Schwann cells myelinate peripheral nerves and are the target in Guillain-Barré syndrome, a common distractor.
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Question #3
A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 10 minutes after being stung on the neck by a bee while hiking. He reports difficulty breathing and lightheadedness. He has no history of medical problems. His pulse is 128/min, respirations are 28/min, and blood pressure is 76/40 mm Hg. Examination shows diffuse urticaria, lip swelling, and wheezing over both lung fields. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct answer: E
Explanation
Hypotension, bronchospasm, and urticaria after an insect sting indicate anaphylaxis, a type I hypersensitivity reaction with mast cell mediator release. Intramuscular epinephrine is first-line because α1 stimulation reverses vasodilation and edema while β2 stimulation relaxes bronchial smooth muscle. Antihistamines, glucocorticoids, and albuterol are adjuncts that do not treat the circulatory collapse and should not delay epinephrine.
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Question #4
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of frequent falls and difficulty climbing stairs. He began walking at 20 months of age. When rising from the floor, he places his hands on his thighs and pushes himself upright. Examination shows enlarged, firm calves and weakness of the hip girdle muscles. Serum creatine kinase activity is 18,000 U/L (N=22–198). His maternal uncle had a similar illness and used a wheelchair by age 12 years. A muscle biopsy specimen shows variation in fiber size, necrosis, and fibrofatty replacement; immunostaining for dystrophin is completely absent. Which of the following genetic changes is most likely in this patient?
Correct answer: C
Explanation
X-linked inheritance, early onset, calf pseudohypertrophy, a Gowers maneuver, and complete absence of dystrophin indicate Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Complete loss of protein results from a frameshift deletion with a premature stop codon. An in-frame deletion yields a shortened, partly functional dystrophin and the milder Becker phenotype, which is the most tempting distractor.
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Question #5
A 22-year-old African American man comes to the emergency department because of dark urine, fatigue, and low back pain for 1 day. Three days ago he started trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for a urinary tract infection. He has had no previous similar episodes. His temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 104/min, and blood pressure is 118/72 mm Hg. Examination shows scleral icterus. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 8.2 g/dL Reticulocyte count 6% Bilirubin, total 3.4 mg/dL Bilirubin, direct 0.4 mg/dL Lactate dehydrogenase 640 U/L A peripheral blood smear after supravital staining shows red blood cells with inclusions, and some cells have semicircular defects. Impaired production of which of the following in red blood cells is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
Oxidant-triggered hemolysis in a young man of African ancestry, with Heinz bodies and bite cells, indicates G6PD deficiency. G6PD is the first enzyme of the pentose phosphate pathway, which is the red cell's source of NADPH for regenerating reduced glutathione. Without it, hemoglobin is oxidized and precipitates, and the damaged cells are removed by splenic macrophages. Glycolysis still supplies ATP and NADH in these cells.
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Question #6
A 19-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department because of 2 days of vomiting, abdominal pain, and increasing lethargy. He ran out of insulin 4 days ago. His respirations are deep and rapid at 30/min. Arterial blood gas analysis and serum studies show: pH 7.26 Na+ 136 mEq/L Cl− 98 mEq/L HCO3− 10 mEq/L Glucose 520 mg/dL Assuming appropriate respiratory compensation, which of the following is the expected arterial PCO2 in this patient?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
The anion gap is 136 − (98 + 10) = 28 mEq/L, so this is a high anion gap metabolic acidosis from diabetic ketoacidosis. Expected PCO2 by Winter formula is (1.5 × HCO3−) + 8 ± 2 = (1.5 × 10) + 8 = 23 ± 2 mm Hg. A value of 40 mm Hg would indicate failure to compensate, suggesting a coexisting respiratory acidosis.
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Question #7
Researchers investigate a possible association between regular use of a certain herbicide and pancreatic cancer. They identify 120 patients with newly diagnosed pancreatic cancer and 240 age- and sex-matched patients without cancer from the same hospitals. All participants are interviewed about their past occupational exposure to the herbicide. Which of the following is the most appropriate measure of association for this study?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
Participants were selected on the basis of disease status and exposure was assessed retrospectively, which defines a case-control study. Because the investigators fix the number of cases and controls, incidence cannot be calculated, so the odds ratio is the appropriate measure. Relative risk requires incidence data from a cohort study or trial.
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Question #8
A 70-year-old man with chronic systolic heart failure is admitted because of 3 days of worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, and leg swelling. Examination shows jugular venous distention, bibasilar crackles, and 3+ pitting edema to the knees. He is given intravenous furosemide and has a brisk increase in urine output within 30 minutes. This drug most likely acts by inhibiting which of the following?
Correct answer: E
Explanation
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that blocks the Na+-K+-2Cl− cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, producing rapid, large-volume diuresis. The Na+-Cl− cotransporter is the target of thiazides, and the epithelial Na+ channel is blocked by amiloride and triamterene.
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Question #9
A 58-year-old man is hospitalized for evaluation of weight loss and jaundice. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a pancreatic mass with liver metastases, and biopsy results confirm adenocarcinoma. The patient is alert, oriented, and has decision-making capacity. He has not named anyone to receive information on his behalf and has not previously told the physician how much he wants to know. As the physician approaches his room, the patient's daughter stops her in the hallway and says, "Please don't tell my father it's cancer. He will give up if he finds out." Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the physician?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
A patient with capacity controls who receives his information and how much he wants to hear. The best approach acknowledges the daughter's concern and then asks the patient about his own preferences before disclosing anything. Honoring the family's request without asking him, or disclosing everything without checking his preferences, both bypass his autonomy. An ethics consultation is not needed when the patient can simply be asked.
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Question #10
A 58-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of progressive difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. He regurgitates undigested food, has a nocturnal cough, and has had a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A barium swallow shows a dilated esophagus that tapers distally to a narrow segment. Esophageal manometry shows incomplete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter with swallowing and absent peristalsis in the esophageal body. Endoscopy shows no mass or stricture. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
Correct answer: C
Explanation
Achalasia results from loss of nitric oxide and VIP-producing inhibitory neurons in the myenteric plexus, so the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax and peristalsis is absent. This gives the bird's-beak appearance on barium study. Systemic sclerosis causes fibrosis and smooth muscle atrophy but leaves the sphincter incompetent rather than hypertonic.
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FAQ
Learn More: https://www.usmle.org/step-exams/step-1
- Q1: What is the USMLE Step 1 exam?
- A: USMLE Step 1 is a professional examination.
- Q2: Are there practice questions for USMLE Step 1?
- A: Yes. The first ten are free to read with their answers and no account is needed; the rest of the bank and the practice test come with access to the exam.
- Q3: How should I prepare for USMLE Step 1?
- A: Start from the official USMLE exam objectives, which define what is actually tested, and practise against questions written to them rather than to a syllabus someone has guessed at.
- Q4: Where do I register for USMLE Step 1?
- A: Registration is handled by the awarding body — see https://www.usmle.org/step-exams/step-1 for the current fee, the testing options and the booking process.



