Free CPA: Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination Exam Questions and Answers
The Uniform CPA Examination, sat in four parts: three core sections (AUD, FAR, REG) and one discipline section (BAR, ISC or TCP). Each part is registered for and passed separately.
Candidates comparing CPA exam dumps, ExamTopics and other CPA practice tests use this page for the answers and explanations behind each question. Download the free CPA PDF, then sit the timed CPA exam simulation before booking with AICPA.
Last updated: October 20, 2026
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Question #1
In planning the audit of Brandt Co., an auditor determines materiality for the financial statements as a whole to be $500,000. The auditor expects users to be influenced by misstatements in related-party transactions and disclosures that are well below $500,000. Which of the following is the auditor's most appropriate response?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
When misstatements of lesser amounts than overall materiality could reasonably be expected to influence users' decisions about particular classes of transactions, account balances or disclosures, the auditor determines a separate, lower materiality level for those items and designs procedures with it. Lowering performance materiality across all accounts or the overall materiality is too broad, and waiting until the evaluation stage fails to affect the nature, timing and extent of the procedures.
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Question #2
A retailer's customer table uses CustomerID as its single-column primary key. Each row also stores ZIPCode and SalesRegion, and SalesRegion is determined by ZIPCode rather than by CustomerID. All fields hold single values. What is the lowest normal form that the table violates?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
Every field holds a single value, so the table meets first normal form, and with a single-column primary key there can be no partial dependency, so it meets second normal form. SalesRegion depends on ZIPCode, a non-key attribute, which is a transitive dependency and violates third normal form. Fourth normal form addresses multivalued dependencies and is a higher form.
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Question #3
A security analyst at Vance Logistics confirms that ransomware is actively encrypting files on a file server and appears to be spreading to systems that have the server's shares mapped. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
Once the incident is confirmed, the first priority is containment to stop the spread and limit damage. Restoring before containment risks reinfection, root cause analysis and notification follow containment, and the evidence on isolated systems can still be preserved for later analysis.
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Question #4
An auditor is concerned that accounts payable at December 31 may be understated. Which of the following procedures is most likely to be effective in detecting unrecorded liabilities?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
A search for unrecorded liabilities starts from items outside the recorded population, such as subsequent disbursements, and checks whether the obligation existed at year-end. Vouching recorded payables and confirming recorded balances test for overstatement, and footing the subledger tests only mathematical accuracy of items already recorded.
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Question #5
An auditor plans to select customer balances for confirmation from an accounts receivable aging report generated by the client's accounting system. Which of the following procedures best addresses the completeness and accuracy of the report?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
When the auditor uses information produced by the entity, the auditor evaluates whether it is sufficiently complete and accurate by testing the report itself. Agreeing the total to the ledger addresses completeness, and recomputing the aging for sampled invoices addresses accuracy. Inquiry and representations alone are not sufficient, and a customer count comparison says little about either assertion.
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Question #6
Delmar Co. purchased a machine on January 1, Year 1, for $120,000. The machine was depreciated using the straight-line method over a 10-year useful life with no salvage value. On January 1, Year 4, Delmar determined that the machine's total useful life is 8 years and that salvage value remains zero. What amount of depreciation expense should Delmar report for Year 4?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
A change in useful life is a change in accounting estimate, applied prospectively. Accumulated depreciation after three years is $36,000, so the carrying amount is $84,000. The remaining life is 8 - 3 = 5 years, so depreciation is $84,000 / 5 = $16,800. Dividing $84,000 by 8 or $120,000 by 8 ignores the remaining life.
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Question #7
On January 1, Year 1, Kessler Co. entered into a $2,000,000 contract to build a warehouse. Revenue is recognized over time using costs incurred relative to total estimated costs. At December 31, Year 1, costs incurred were $600,000 and total estimated costs were $1,500,000. At December 31, Year 2, cumulative costs incurred were $1,200,000 and total estimated costs were $1,600,000. How much revenue should Kessler recognize in Year 2?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
Year 1 progress was $600,000 / $1,500,000 = 40%, so $800,000 of revenue was recognized. At the end of Year 2, progress is $1,200,000 / $1,600,000 = 75%, so cumulative revenue is $1,500,000. Year 2 revenue is $1,500,000 - $800,000 = $700,000. The cumulative amount is not the Year 2 amount.
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Question #8
Under US GAAP, which of the following costs is included in the cost of inventory?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
Inventory cost includes expenditures necessary to bring goods to their existing condition and location, which includes freight-in. Selling costs, storage of finished goods not needed in production, and abnormal amounts of spoilage are expensed as incurred.
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Question #9
A practitioner is engaged to examine Harbor Co.'s compliance with five requirements of a federal grant agreement for the year ended December 31, Year 4. Harbor's records for one requirement were destroyed in a flood, and the practitioner cannot apply alternative procedures to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence about that requirement. The practitioner concludes that the possible effects are material but not pervasive, and that the other four requirements were met. Which of the following opinions should the practitioner express?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
A scope limitation whose possible effects are material but not pervasive results in a qualified opinion, with a basis for qualified opinion paragraph describing the limitation. A disclaimer is reserved for limitations that are both material and pervasive, and an adverse opinion applies to known noncompliance, not to missing evidence. An emphasis-of-matter paragraph cannot substitute for modifying the opinion.
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Question #10
In Year 5, Brandt Corp., a calendar-year C corporation, has taxable income of $300,000 before any net operating loss (NOL) deduction. It has a $400,000 NOL carryforward from Year 2 and no other carryforwards. Assuming a 21% corporate tax rate, what is Brandt's Year 5 federal income tax liability?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
NOLs arising after 2017 can offset only 80% of taxable income computed before the NOL deduction, so the deduction is limited to $240,000 (80% x $300,000). Taxable income is $60,000, and tax is $12,600 (21% x $60,000). Using the full $400,000 would wrongly eliminate the tax, and ignoring the NOL would produce $63,000. The $160,000 excess carries forward.
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Discussion
Explain your reasoning, not just the letterOther AICPA certifications
- Tax Compliance and Planning (TCP) (opens in a new tab)
- Information Systems and Controls (ISC) (opens in a new tab)
- Financial Accounting and Reporting (FAR) (opens in a new tab)
- AUD: CPA Auditing and Attestation Exam (opens in a new tab)
- Regulation (REG) (opens in a new tab)
- Business Analysis and Reporting (BAR) (opens in a new tab)
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FAQ
Learn More: https://www.aicpa-cima.com/resources/toolkit/cpa-exam
- Q1: What is the CPA: Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination exam?
- A: CPA: Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination is a professional examination offered by AICPA.
- Q2: Are there practice questions for CPA: Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination?
- A: Yes. The first ten are free to read with their answers and no account is needed; the rest of the bank and the practice test come with access to the exam.
- Q3: How should I prepare for CPA: Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination?
- A: Start from the official AICPA exam objectives, which define what is actually tested, and practise against questions written to them rather than to a syllabus someone has guessed at.
- Q4: Where do I register for CPA: Uniform Certified Public Accountant Examination?
- A: Registration is handled by the awarding body — see https://www.aicpa-cima.com/resources/landing/cpa-exam for the current fee, the testing options and the booking process.
- Q5: What are AICPA Certification Exams?
- A: AICPA (American Institute of Certified Public Accountants) Certification Exams validate your expertise in accounting and finance, covering areas such as auditing, taxation, financial accounting, and business law. These exams are essential for becoming a Certified Public Accountant (CPA).
- Q6: Why should I pursue AICPA Certification?
- A: AICPA Certification enhances your professional credibility, demonstrating your proficiency in accounting and finance. This can lead to better job opportunities, higher salaries, and career advancement in the accounting and finance sectors.
- Q7: What are the benefits of AICPA Certification?
- A: Benefits include recognition as a certified accounting professional, improved job performance, access to exclusive resources, continuing education opportunities, and the ability to stay current with the latest accounting standards and best practices.
- Q8: Who should take AICPA Certification Exams?
- A: Aspiring accountants, finance professionals, auditors, tax advisors, and anyone pursuing a career in accounting or finance should consider these certifications to validate their expertise and achieve professional goals.
- Q9: What types of AICPA Certification Exams are available?
- A: The primary certification offered by AICPA is the CPA (Certified Public Accountant) exam, which consists of four sections: Auditing and Attestation (AUD), Business Environment and Concepts (BEC), Financial Accounting and Reporting (FAR), and Regulation (REG).
- Q10: How do I prepare for AICPA Certification Exams?
- A: Preparation can include official AICPA study materials, CPA review courses, practice exams, and hands-on experience in accounting and finance.
- Q11: Where can I take AICPA Certification Exams?
- A: AICPA Certification Exams are administered at Prometric testing centers worldwide, providing flexibility to fit your schedule and location.
- Q12: How do AICPA Certifications impact my career?
- A: AICPA Certifications significantly boost your career by demonstrating your expertise to employers, making you a more competitive candidate for advanced roles and promotions in the accounting and finance industry.
- Q13: Are there any prerequisites for AICPA Certification Exams?
- A: To sit for the CPA exam, candidates must meet specific educational and experience requirements, which vary by state. Check the specific requirements for your jurisdiction on the AICPA website.
- Q14: How often do I need to recertify for AICPA Certifications?
- A: CPAs must meet continuing professional education (CPE) requirements annually to maintain their certification and stay updated with the latest industry practices and regulations.



