Free Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) Exam Questions and Answers
Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) is part of AAPC coding credentials. AAPC credentials certify coding accuracy against the current CPT, ICD-10-CM and HCPCS Level II code sets, and the exams are open book — three current-year manuals, one of each.
Candidates comparing Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) exam dumps, ExamTopics and other practice tests use this page for the answers and explanations behind each question. Download the free PDF, then sit the timed exam simulation before booking with AAPC.
Last updated: October 17, 2026
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Question #1
A 68-year-old woman is seen for a follow-up visit. The assessment and plan read: 1. Type 2 diabetes mellitus. A1c 7.4%. Continue metformin 1000 mg twice daily. 2. Chronic kidney disease, stage 3b. eGFR 41. Repeat basic metabolic panel in 3 months. The provider does not state a cause for the kidney disease and does not say that it is unrelated to the diabetes. Which codes should be reported?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
The ICD-10-CM "with" convention presumes a causal link between diabetes and chronic kidney disease unless the provider documents that they are unrelated, so E11.22 is reported with N18.32 for stage 3b. Z79.84 captures long-term use of an oral hypoglycemic such as metformin, while Z79.4 is for insulin. Coding E11.9 ignores the presumed relationship, and N18.30 is the unspecified-stage code even though stage 3b is documented.
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Question #2
The assessment section of a cardiology progress note lists the following: 1. NSTEMI, s/p PCI to LAD 2 weeks ago 2. HFrEF, EF 30%, continue sacubitril-valsartan 3. A-fib on apixaban 4. CKD stage 4 Which option correctly expands NSTEMI, HFrEF and A-fib as they are used in this note?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
NSTEMI is a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction, HFrEF is heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (consistent with the documented EF of 30%), and A-fib is atrial fibrillation, the rhythm treated with an anticoagulant such as apixaban. Preserved-EF heart failure would show a normal or near-normal EF. Atrial flutter is a different rhythm with its own abbreviation.
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Question #3
A Medicare Advantage plan reports that 62% of its members with diabetes had a hemoglobin A1c below 8.0% in the measurement year. This HEDIS result contributes to the plan's STAR rating. Which statement correctly describes how this result differs from the plan's HCC risk scores?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
HEDIS measures are standardized quality indicators that feed STAR ratings, while HCC risk adjustment predicts expected healthcare costs so that payment reflects member illness burden. The two programs are complementary: accurate diagnosis capture identifies members who need disease management, and HEDIS shows whether that care is delivered. Validating submitted diagnoses is the role of RADV audits, not HEDIS.
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Question #4
A plan analyst is calculating a member's raw CMS-HCC risk score. Which set of inputs is used?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
The CMS-HCC raw score combines demographic factors (age, sex, Medicaid dual status, original reason for entitlement) with disease factors, which are HCCs mapped from diagnosis codes. Procedure codes, visit counts and place of service are not model inputs, and the plan's premium tier plays no part in the member's risk score.
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Question #5
Office visit, 74-year-old male HPI: Mr. Alvarez presents with 3 days of worsening cough, wheezing and increased sputum. He uses albuterol and tiotropium daily. He quit smoking in 2015. He denies fever. PMH: Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Chronic systolic heart failure. Left leg DVT in 2019, completed 6 months of anticoagulation, no current symptoms. Prostate cancer treated with prostatectomy in 2017, no evidence of recurrence, no current treatment. Medications: metformin, carvedilol, tiotropium, albuterol. Exam: BP 128/76, HR 88, SpO2 92% on room air. Diffuse expiratory wheezes bilaterally. Heart regular, 1+ ankle edema. Left leg without swelling or tenderness. Assessment and plan: 1. COPD with acute exacerbation. Start prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days, continue tiotropium. 2. Type 2 diabetes mellitus. A1c 7.1% last month. Continue metformin. 3. Chronic systolic heart failure, EF 35%. Continue carvedilol, daily weights. 4. Probable pneumonia. Chest x-ray ordered. Which set of codes should be reported for the risk-adjusting conditions supported at this encounter?
Correct answer: B
Explanation
COPD with acute exacerbation (J44.1), type 2 diabetes without complications (E11.9) and chronic systolic heart failure (I50.22) are each documented and addressed in the plan. The heart failure type is stated, so the unspecified code I50.9 is not used. Pneumonia is only "probable," which is not coded in the outpatient setting, and the prostate cancer is history with no current treatment, which is not reported as active cancer.
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Question #6
A member's risk score is built from the following factors: Demographic factor (age, sex, dual status): 0.412 HCC for heart failure: 0.331 HCC for diabetes with chronic complications: 0.302 HCC for diabetes without complications (same hierarchy as the diabetes HCC above): 0.105 Diabetes and heart failure interaction: 0.121 Both diabetes codes were submitted from valid encounters during the data collection year. What is the member's raw risk score?
Correct answer: C
Explanation
The lower-ranked diabetes HCC is trumped by diabetes with chronic complications and is not counted. Raw score = 0.412 + 0.331 + 0.302 + 0.121 = 1.166. Adding the trumped HCC gives 1.271, leaving out the interaction term gives 1.045, and leaving out the demographic factor gives 0.754.
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Question #7
A health plan submitted C34.11 for a beneficiary, and the diagnosis is selected for validation in a RADV audit. The only record supplied is a 2024 oncology follow-up note: "Adenocarcinoma of right upper lobe, status post lobectomy in 2021. No adjuvant therapy given. CT chest shows no evidence of recurrence. Repeat surveillance imaging in 6 months." What is the most likely RADV finding?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
A malignancy that was excised, with no further treatment and no evidence of recurrence, is reported with a personal history code (Z85.118), which does not risk-adjust. Reporting active cancer for a history-only condition is one of the most common unsupported-diagnosis errors in RADV. Stage is not required to validate an HCC, and surveillance alone does not make the cancer current.
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Question #8
A coder reviews a face-to-face visit for a Medicare Advantage member. The assessment documents the following, each with supporting evaluation and treatment: severe obesity due to excess calories, chronic systolic heart failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, stage 2 chronic kidney disease, and hyperlipidemia. Which set of codes includes only diagnoses that map to a payment HCC in the CMS-HCC model (V28)?
Correct answer: D
Explanation
Morbid (severe) obesity E66.01, chronic systolic heart failure I50.22 and COPD J44.9 each map to a payment HCC. CKD stage 2 (N18.2) and hyperlipidemia (E78.5) are valid codes but do not map, since only CKD stage 3 and higher carries an HCC. Each wrong set contains one of these non-mapping codes.
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Question #9
Office Visit Note Patient: 68-year-old male. Chief complaint: follow-up of chronic conditions. History: Patient reports no new complaints. Home blood glucose readings range 120 to 170 mg/dL. Takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily and lisinopril 20 mg daily. Reports no chest pain or shortness of breath. Past surgical history includes radical prostatectomy in 2015 for prostate cancer; PSA has been undetectable on yearly checks and no cancer treatment has been given since surgery. Exam: BP 138/82, HR 76, BMI 29.4. Lungs clear. No peripheral edema. Data: HbA1c 7.8%. Creatinine 1.7 mg/dL, eGFR 41 mL/min/1.73 m2, stable compared with the last three results. Assessment and Plan: 1. Type 2 diabetes mellitus. A1c 7.8%. Continue metformin, recheck in 3 months. 2. Chronic kidney disease, stage 3b. eGFR stable. Avoid NSAIDs, repeat BMP in 3 months. 3. Hypertension. BP at goal. Continue lisinopril. 4. History of prostate cancer, s/p prostatectomy, no evidence of recurrence. Annual PSA. Which set of ICD-10-CM codes is correctly reported for this encounter?
Correct answer: A
Explanation
The ICD-10-CM "with" convention presumes a link between diabetes and CKD (E11.22) and between hypertension and CKD (I12.9), and the stage is documented as 3b (N18.32). Metformin supports Z79.84. The prostate cancer was excised with no treatment or evidence of disease, so it is reported as history (Z85.46), not C61. E11.9 with I10 ignores the presumed relationships, and N18.30 ignores the documented stage.
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Question #10
A coder is abstracting a face-to-face office note for a 70-year-old Medicare Advantage member whose problem list includes several chronic conditions that are all addressed in the plan. Which of the following diagnosis codes maps to a payment HCC in the CMS-HCC model (V28)?
Correct answer: C
Explanation
Atrial fibrillation falls in the specified heart arrhythmias HCC, so I48.91 contributes to the risk score. Essential hypertension, hyperlipidemia and uncomplicated GERD are common chronic diagnoses that do not map to a payment HCC.
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Discussion
Explain your reasoning, not just the letterOther AAPC certifications
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FAQ
Learn More: https://www.aapc.com/certifications
- Q1: What is the Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) exam?
- A: Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) is a AAPC certification exam. Judging by the questions in our bank, it concentrates on patient, coding, chronic, history and disease.
- Q2: What topics does the Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) exam cover?
- A: Questions in our Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) bank cluster around patient, coding, chronic, history, disease, presents, detail and copd. Working through the full set is the quickest way to find which of these you are weakest on.
- Q3: How should I prepare for Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC)?
- A: Work through the Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) practice questions here, checking your answer on each one, then sit the practice test to rehearse the exam under timed conditions before the real thing.
- Q4: Are these real Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) exam questions?
- A: They are drawn from officially released past questions and from community members who have sat Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC). Answers are verified and updated weekly.
- Q5: Where do I register for the Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) exam?
- A: Register through AAPC directly at https://www.aapc.com/certifications. Exampractice is not affiliated with AAPC and does not administer the exam.
- Q6: Is there a free Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) sample?
- A: Yes. Every Certified Risk Adjustment Coder (CRC) page shows a free sample of real questions. Upgrading opens the full bank and the practice test.
- Q7: What are AAPC Certification Exams?
- A: AAPC (American Academy of Professional Coders) Certification Exams validate your expertise in medical coding, billing, auditing, compliance, and practice management within the healthcare industry.
- Q8: Why should I pursue AAPC Certification?
- A: AAPC Certification enhances your professional credibility, demonstrating your skills and knowledge in medical coding and healthcare administration. This can lead to better job opportunities, higher salaries, and career advancement.
- Q9: What are the benefits of AAPC Certification?
- A: Benefits include recognition of your expertise, improved job performance, access to exclusive resources, continuing education opportunities, and staying current with the latest industry standards and practices.
- Q10: Who should take AAPC Certification Exams?
- A: Medical coders, billers, auditors, compliance officers, and healthcare administrators should consider these certifications to validate their skills and advance their careers in the healthcare industry.
- Q11: What types of AAPC Certification Exams are available?
- A: AAPC offers various certification paths, including Certified Professional Coder (CPC), Certified Outpatient Coder (COC), Certified Inpatient Coder (CIC), and many specialty certifications tailored to specific healthcare roles and expertise levels.
- Q12: How do I prepare for AAPC Certification Exams?
- A: Preparation can include official AAPC training courses, study guides, practice exams, and hands-on experience in medical coding and healthcare management.
- Q13: Where can I take AAPC Certification Exams?
- A: AAPC Certification Exams can be taken at authorized testing centers worldwide or online, providing flexibility to fit your schedule and location.
- Q14: How do AAPC Certifications impact my career?
- A: AAPC Certifications significantly boost your career by demonstrating your expertise to employers, making you a more competitive candidate for advanced roles and promotions in the healthcare industry.
- Q15: Are there any prerequisites for AAPC Certification Exams?
- A: Some exams may have prerequisites, such as foundational knowledge or prior certifications. Check the specific requirements for each certification path on the AAPC website.
- Q16: How often do I need to recertify for AAPC Certifications?
- A: AAPC Certifications typically require continuing education units (CEUs) and recertification every two years to ensure that certified professionals stay updated with the latest industry standards and practices.



